Ngô Quốc Anh

September 4, 2010

CE: Convergence of improper integrals does not imply the integrands go to zero

Filed under: Counter-examples, Giải Tích 3 — Ngô Quốc Anh @ 12:31

This entry devotes a similar question that raises during a course of series. We all know that for a convergent series of (positive) real number

\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n

it is necessary to have

\displaystyle\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {a_n} = 0.

This is the so-called n-th term test. A natural extension is the following question

Question. Suppose f(x) is positive on [0,\infty) and

\displaystyle\int_0^{ + \infty } {f(x)dx}

exists. Must f(x) tend to zero as x \to +\infty?


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